Question

The statement (¬p)  ⟹  (¬q)(\neg p) \implies (\neg q) is logically equivalent to which of the statements below?

I. p  ⟹  qp \implies q
II. q  ⟹  pq \implies p
III. (¬q)∨p(\neg q) \lor p
IV. (¬p)∨q(\neg p) \lor q

Choose one option
Official answer and solution
Official answer
D
From
Official GATE 2017 answer key

Solution

Express the implication (¬p)  ⟹  (¬q)(\neg p) \implies (\neg q) in disjunctive form and determine its contrapositive.

Recall the conditional equivalence rule: A  ⟹  B≡¬A∨BA \implies B \equiv \neg A \lor B.

Applying this to the given statement:

(¬p)  ⟹  (¬q)≡¬(¬p)∨(¬q)≡p∨¬q≡(¬q)∨p(\neg p) \implies (\neg q) \equiv \neg(\neg p) \lor (\neg q) \equiv p \lor \neg q \equiv (\neg q) \lor p

This directly matches statement III.

Furthermore, the contrapositive of an implication A  ⟹  BA \implies B is ¬B  ⟹  ¬A\neg B \implies \neg A, which is logically equivalent to the original statement. Taking the contrapositive of (¬p)  ⟹  (¬q)(\neg p) \implies (\neg q):

¬(¬q)  ⟹  ¬(¬p)≡q  ⟹  p\neg(\neg q) \implies \neg(\neg p) \equiv q \implies p

This directly matches statement II.

Statements I (p  ⟹  q≡¬p∨qp \implies q \equiv \neg p \lor q) and IV ((¬p)∨q(\neg p) \lor q) are equivalent to each other, but not equivalent to (¬p)  ⟹  (¬q)(\neg p) \implies (\neg q). Hence, only II and III are logically equivalent to the given statement.

Final answer

D

The answer is the one in the official GATE answer key. The solution is this site's own explanation.

Source

Paper
GATE 2017 Computer Science and Information Technology (CS) Session 1
Question
1 of 65, printed as CS Q.1
Section
Computer Science and Information Technology

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